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Is British society historically more tolerant of homosexuality than American society?

John Gielgud was convicted of “persistently importuning for immoral purposes” in a Chelsea mews in 1953, only a few months after year he was knighted, The renowned actor was soliciting sex in public rest-rooms.
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Gielgud was advised not to seek work in the United States for at least four years as he likely would be being refused entry by American immigration authorities. After the arrest Gielgud went ahead with the stage production where he was working.
Upon entering the stage the first night, after his arrest the house was brought down by a standing ovation. I don’t think he went to the USA until 1964 when he was nominated for Best Supporting Actor, for Becket.
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In contrast in 1957 Liberace, sued the Daily Mirror for insinuating that he was “fruit-flavoured.” He won, and the papers had a riot. Of course Rock Hudson had to get married to stop the rumours about his behaviour.
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In your opinion do these stories show that (at least educated) British society has historically been more tolerant of homosexuality than American society? Or was he just an exception that only applied to the theater society.
I specifically said “historically”. I am talking pre-1970. Was there kind of knowing “confirmed bachelor” reference that people didn’t talk about too much.
I may be reading too much into this incident. Truman Capote was fairly openly gay and he was widely admired by New York society in the 1950’s.